Publisher: Pearson Prentice Hall PSY 505 Psychopathology Text: Abnormal Psychology First Edition ISBN-10: 0132216124 Authors: Deborah C. Beidel, Cynthia M. Bulik, and Melinda A. Stanley 2. Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet) 1. Of all disorders reported in the U.S., the most common are alcohol dependence and _ a. anxiety disorders b. major depression c. schizophrenic disorders d. persona I ity disorder 3. When using the DSM model to determine abnormality of a behavior, which of the following statements is TR U E? a. The person’s behavior is assessed both categorically and dimensionally. b. The person either falls into a category or doesn’t fall into a category. c. The person’s level of dysfunction is not considered. d. The behavior is not considered within a cultural context. 3. The first physician to adopt a form of occupational therapy for patients was a. Pinel. b. Paracelsus. c. Dix. d. Hippocrates. 4. Emil Kraepelin is best known for his contributions to the study of schizophrenia. He introduced two new diagnostic categories of disordered behavior, dementia praecox and manic-depressive insanity, based on symptom differentiation, , and _ a. etiology; prognosis b. etiology; physiology c. prognosis; symptomology d. prognosis; physiology 5. In the classical conditioning paradigm demonstrated by Pavlov through his study of the physiology of dog digestion, what was the UCS? a. Bell b. Food Powder c. Pavlov d. Salivating 4. 5. Raul is a college freshman who looks forward to weekend parties at college. He especially likes to play “beer pong” and is known on campus as a champion player. After a recent party, Raul received a DUI citation. Raul’s parents have urged him to seek treatment for his “alcohol problem,” but Raul refuses. He does not believe he has a drinking problem. In Freud’s theory, which of the following defense mechanisms is Raul likely using? a. Intellectual ization b. Rationalization c. Denial d. Repression 7. Tin Aaron Beck’s model of depression, the cognitive triad consists of a. past, present, and future expectations. b. three types of negative thoughts. c. Freud’s id, ego and superego. d. three levels of the mind. 8. Ataque de nervios is a culture-bound syndrome found among Latinos. The notion that social forces playa role with respect to when this type of disorder occurs is supported by the fact that ataque symptoms a. differ depending on the culture in which they are expressed. b. are found in all Latino adolescents at some point in time. c. are seen only in those from large families. d. frequently begin after some form of social disruption. 9. Latino youths born in the U.S. are as likely to attempt suicide as foreign-born Latino youths. a. three times b. five times c. four times d. twice 10. The diathesis-stress model of abnormal behavior assumes that a. a person who has a genetic predisposition for a disorder will exhibit the disorder at some point in time. b. stress causes physiological changes that lead to disruptions in environmental supports. c. a “diathesis” from the environment interacts with biological influences to produce disordered behavior. d. biology and environmental factors interact to determine the likelihood that a person will exhibit abnormal behavior. 6. 11. Mario has just returned from his third deployment to Iraq. For several months after returning, he is unable to sleep and has difficulty dealing with flashbacks of mortar fire over the compound in which he worked. Using a biopsychosocial model, we might explain his problems as deriving from a. the stress of deployment alone. b. a diathesis and the stress of deployment. c. a lack of social support. d. a failure in coping alone. 12. The biological, psychological, sociocultural, and biopsychosocial models all assume that a. the cause of a dysfunctional behavior may be identified through research. b. there is an underlying physiological cause to abnormal behavior c. environmental events trigger physiological changes. d. no single factor may be a determinant in manifesting abnormal behavior. 13.Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. Modern psychologists believe that psychopathology is physiologically based. b. Abnormal behavior may be best understood using a single theoretical framework. c. Understanding abnormal behaviors requires an integration of models. d. Sociocultural factors are the best explanation for disordered behavior. 14. The human genome contains approximately genes. ‘” J; ()()() to 1 0,000 b. 20,000 to 25,000 c. 50,000 to 75,000 d. 50,000 to 100,000 15. Which of the following IS NOT a method of molecular genetics used to drill down to the molecular level in explaining behavior? a. Genomewide Linkage Analysis b. Candidate Gene Association Study c. Genomewide Association d. Candidate Genomewide Analysis 7. 16. Which of the following IS NOT a benefit of the case study method? a. It allows for the examination of rare disorders or conditions. b. It may lead to the generation of new hypotheses to be tested in group studies. c. It allows for the evaluation of large groups with rare disorders. d. Case studies may highlight important clinical issues that may not surface in group studies. 17. A research study produces a negative correlation between hours of sleep and test performance. Given this, what do we know about the relationship of the variables? a. As hours of sleep decrease, test performance increases. b. As hours of sleep increase, test performance increases. c. There is no relationship between the variables. d. There is a significant relationship between the variables. 18. In correlational research, it is possible that a third variable influences the relationship of the other two variables. This type of variable is labeled a(n) a. independent variable. b. dependent variable. c. moderator variable. d. indirect variable. 19. In a longitudinal study of depression in children cited in your text, it was found that as girls “,;th co h;otory of dcprc;:,;:,;on rno t ur cxf , Liley were 1ll00e uxery IO a. develop eating disorders. b. develop conduct disorders. c. drop out of the study. d. report substance abuse problems. 20. During the course of a physical exam, a physician suspects his patient may be depressed. In order to explore this diagnostic possibility, the physician uses a “brief screening device” for depression. The doctor probably _ a. asked the patient two questions about feelings of hopelessness and feelings related to the enjoyment of activities b. used the Audit to determine their level of depression c. used the General Health Questionnaire (GHQ) to assess the degree to which the patient’s depression was affecti ng general health d. asked the patient to rate his degree of depression using the Checklist of Mood States (CMS) 8. 9. Clinical assessments for outcome evaluation may be repeated over time during treatment in order to a. evaluate a patient’s progress. b. be certain the problem behavior has been identified. c. recheck the accuracy of the diagnosis. d. determine the patient’s changing attitudes toward the therapist. 22. Dr. Winston is interested in determining if his patient’s score on a psychometric instrument measuring resilience is comparable to the scores of other persons in his age group. Given this interest, Dr. Winston would compare his patient’s score to scores for a group. a. normative b. comparative C. related d. relative 23. Which of the following best captures the meaning of reliability? a. Test scores of different people are high Iy correlated. b. Test scores vary over time but stay within 2 standard deviations of the mean. c. A test consistently produces the same score for the same person. d. I nterrater agreement is low. 24. Tests such as the Dementia Rating Scale (DRS) a. are intended to assess symptoms unique to a specific development segment of patients. b. require teachers to provide observational data for students in grade school. c. are designed to evaluate the degree to which depression impacts memory. d. may not be appropriate for use with older persons. 25. The Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WiSe) assesses intelligence in which of the following age ranges? a. 2 1/2-7 years b. 7-16 years c. 7-12 years d. 7-14 years 10.Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet) 1. As a patient describes his symptoms to a clinician, she begins to suspect that he is suffering from an anxiety disorder. When he mentions fearing class presentations and dropping classes to avoid them, she knows that he _ a. is likely to need medication to help him relax b. has just cited two classic behavioral symptoms of anxiety c. probably suffers from obsessive-compulsive disorder d. comes from a highly anxious family 2. A child’s developmental hierarchy of fear depends on the child’s chronological age and a. level of cogn itive development. b. level of social development. c. mental age. d. ability to form attachments.3. Which of the following is TRUE of an individual diagnosed with agoraphobia without history of panic disorder? a. The person has panic disorder that is in remission. b. The person has never been diagnosed as having panic disorder. c. The person fears open spaces because of previous panic attacks. d. The disorder usually remits without treatment. 4. The case in your text of Ginny, the nurse who is bothered by insects, illustrates a. a specific phobia. b. the importance of confronting one’s fears. c. the extent to which social support mediates fear. d. a classic case of agoraphobia. 5. By completing rituals, individuals with obsessive-compulsive disorder believe they can neutralize the threat of something bad. This behavior is maintained through which of the following behavioral mechan isms? a. positive reinforcement b. exti nction c. stimulus discrimination d. negative reinforcement 12. 13. Although approximately 6.8 of the adult U.S. population suffers from PTSD. the rate for combat-related PTSD among veterans is about _ a. 18.5 b.50 c.5 d.387. Biofeedback training often combines monitoring of physiological responses with a. in vivo exposure. b. medication. c. self-reports of anxiety levels. d. relaxation training. 8. At least 7 to 18 of the U.S. population has experienced at least one episode of major depression by the age of _ a. 60 b. 20 c. 40 d. 10 9. Even though approximately 20 of the general population report physical symptoms with no organic basis, many a. do not seek medical treatment. b. do not meet DSM criteria for a somatoform disorder. c. doctor-shop but do not choose to have surgery. d. know that their symptoms have psychological origins. 10. Body dysmorphic disorder in adolescence a. impairs social but not academic functioning. b. leads to a high drop-out rate for high schoolers. c. is linked to suicidal ideation and suicide attempts. d. is usually a passing problem that remits in early adulthood. 14. 15. According to the integrative model, which of the following factors influence the onset and maintenance somatoform disorders? a. psychological, cultural and perceptual factors. b. medical, sociological, and psychological factors. c. biological, psychological, social and cultural factors. d. cultural, medical, and gender factors. 12. Tad is being treated for body dysmorphic disorder and is currently undergoing relaxation training. He is most likely being seen by a therapist with which of the following orientations? a. Psychoanalytic b. Cognitive-Behavioral c. Rational-Emotive d. Psychiatric 13. Which of the following has contributed to the questionable scientific status of the category dissociative identity disorder? a. Low prevalence rates of the disorder b. The violent nature of persons with the disorder c. Its restriction to the American cu Iture d. The lack of empirical quantitative investigations14. According to your authors, dysthymic disorder can best be conceptualized as a(n) _ a. chronic state of depression b. fluctuating pattern of high and low moods c. intermittent period of deep depression d. disorder caused by genetic factors 15. Bipolar disorder is a long-term disorder associated with emotional mood swings between the poles of mania and depression with a. no moods characterized as normal. b. a week of normal mood between swings. c. possible normal moods. d. hypomania the most pronounced feature. 16. The various types of bipolar disorder each a. follow roughly the same course of illness. b. have a different course of illness. c. begin at different points in life. d. end in early ad u Ithood. 16. 17. Which figure below is the best estimate of the percentage of new mothers who develop the “baby blues” within a few days of childbirth? a.80 b.50 c.20 d.30 18. The genetic correlation between general ized anxiety disorder and major depression is a.52. b. 100. c.37. d.19. 19. Which of the following IS NOT a risk factor for suicide? a. Psychiatric Illness b. Family History c. Educational Level d. Biological Factors 20. Psychological features often associated with anorexia nervosa include _ a. anxiety and personality disorders b. anxiety and childhood disorders c. depression and somatoform disorders u. uepressron and anxiety 21.The most important personality trait found in cases of anorexia nervosa is a. perfectionism. b. conscientiousness. c. agreeableness. d. responsibility. 22. Unlike anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa is a. a visible eating disorder. b. an invisible eating disorder. c. life-threatening. d. found in women only. 17. 23. Bulimia nervosa IS more prevalent among females and tends to develop in a. less industrialized countries. b. families with more than 3 female children. c. late childhood and early adolescence. d. late adolescence or early adulthood. 24. Willie enjoys eating in the university cafeteria because it features an all-you-can-eat buffet. He prefers to wait until most people have dined before entering the facility because he feels awkward about the amount he consumes. Willie usually eats until he feels uncomfortable, although he does not purge. He is most likely to have which of the following disorders? a. Bulimia Nervosa b. Binge-Eating disorder c. Eating Disorder Not Otherwise Specified d. Anorexia Nervosa-binge eating type 25. Christina is a middle school student going through puberty before her female classmates. Consequently, she may be at a. lower risk for developing dissatisfaction with her body. b. greater risk for developi ng an eati ng disorder. c. less risk for being underweight. d. greater risk for being sexually abused. 18.Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet) 1. According to the Research Hot Topic box, The Internet and Cybersex, what is known about people at risk for overuse of cybersex? a. They tend to be unemployed males between the ages of 18 and 30. b. No empirical data are available addressing this issue. c. Persons who have obsessive-compulsive disorder are at higher risk. d. Females who are single and live alone are at slightly higher risk. 2. Monique is seven years old and prefers wearing her older brother’s clothes to the frilly dresses her mother wants her to wear. She has gone so far as to repeatedly insist that she is a boy and she chooses only male playmates at school. Most likely, Monique is showing the childhood correlates of _ a. gender identity disorder b. transvestic fetishism c. transgender behavior disorder d. transsexual gender disorder 3. Those who have gender identity disorder may be at comorbid risk for anxiety, depression, and a. schizophrenia b. personality disorders c. substance abuse d. suicide attempts 4. Frank asked his boss for a meeting yesterday, during which he explained that he would be returning to work next week dressed in women’s clothes, and at that point, would like to be called Frances. He explained that this was an important part of a process for the treatment of his a. homosexual disorder. b. gender fetish disorder. c. gender identity disorder. d. hermaphroditic disorder. 20. 21. Female sexual arousal disorder is characterized by a consistent inability to attain or maintain an adequate lubrication-swelling response until the completion of sexual activity. According to your text, why is this disorder controversial? a. It may not exist independently of disorders of sexual desire or orgasmic disorder. b. There is very limited empirical support for it. c. It always accompanies cases of decreased sexual desire. d. It is considered to be another example of labeling normal sexual behavior as dysfunctional. 6. Many women cannot have sexual intercourse due to pain in the outer part of their vagina. Such women may not allow gynecologists to perform a pelvic exam because a speculum cannot be inserted without causing extreme pain from muscle spasms. Which of the following disorders would these women be most likely to have? a. dyspareunia b. dyspepsia c. vaginismus d. anorgasm ia 7. Caffeine has an effect on the drinker of a. no more than 2 hours. b. up to 6 hours or more. c. 4 hours after ingestion. d. less than 2 hours after ingestion. 8. How many adolescents in the U.S. smoke? a. l.2 million b. 3 million c. 17 million d. 44 million 9. Alcohol abuse and dependence are a. more likely to have negative health consequences for men than women. b. more common among men than women. c. less common among whites than Hispanic populations. d. typically rare among Native American persons. 22. 23. Amphetamines have adverse effects. Which of the following is NOT one of those adverse effects? a. Dangerous Elevations in Blood Pressure b. Dangerous Elevations in Heart Rate c. Stroke Risk d. Hypothalamic Abnormalities 11. Barbiturates and benzodiazepines are a. central nervous system stimulants. b. effective for use with anxiety and non-add ictive. c. central nervous system depressants. d. both commonly prescribed. 12. Which of the following inhalant substances is NOT one of the drugs most commonly used by teens? a. Rubbing Alcohol b. Cleaning Fluid c. Glue d. Paint13. Janice came to her local hospital tonight because she feels beetles crawling around inside her body. With the exception of numerous scratch marks, no medical abnormalities were found. Janice remains convinced that she is infested with beetles. What type of hallucinations is she experiencing? a. Visual b. Olfactory c. Gustatory d. Somatic 14. Treatment of schizophrenia should begin as soon as possible after symptoms appear because a. drug treatments are less effective over time. b. delay increases the severity of the functional impairment. c. early treatment is often completely curative. d. prompt intervention always leads to fewer inpatient hospitalizations. 24. 25. When a person is under the age of 18 years and is diagnosed with schizophrenia, the disorder is called a. childhood-induced schizophrenia. b. adolescence-induced schizophrenia. c. pre-adult schizophrenia. d. early-onset schizophren ia. 16. Decreased amounts of and are thought to be contributing factors in the development of the cognitive impairments of schizophrenia. a. glutamate, serotonin b. serotonin, dopamine c. dopamine, glutamate d. GABA, glutamate 17. Medications widely available before the 1990s that are effective in reducing onIy the _____ symptoms of schizophrenia are called _ a. negative, typical antipsychotics b. negative, atypical anti psychotics c. positive, typical anti psychotics d. positive, atypical anti psychotics 18. Which of the following IS NOT a reason stated in your text for medical non-compliance among schizophrenic patients? a. Distress Over Side Effects b. Embarrassment or Stigma c. Alcohol and Substance Abuse d. Lack of Money 19. personal ity disorder involves a pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression in interpersonal settings. a. Paranoid b. Schizoid c. Schizotypal d. Antisocial 26. 20. In order for antisocial personality disorder to be diagnosed, the patient must be at least a. 18 years old and have had symptoms of conduct disorder before age 15. b. 21 years old and have had symptoms of conduct disorder before age 18. c. 18 years old and have had no symptoms of conduct disorder before age 15. d. 21 years old and have had no symptoms of conduct disorder before age 18. 21. Patients with which personality disorder display a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation? a. Histrionic b. Avoidant c. Dependent d. Obsessive-compulsive 22. A patient who meets the diagnostic criteria for more than one personality disorder is diagnosed with a. personality disorder–not otherwise specified. b. personality disorder–undifferentiated. c. personality disorder–residual. d. personality disorder–mixed. 23. Functional impairments in personality disorders are most often seen in what area? a. Cognitive deficits b, School c. Medical problems d. Interpersonal relationships 24. In a set of research studies described in the text, a group of two-year olds were initially categorized as being inhibited or uninhibited. Twenty years later, the participants a. retained some of the basic brain properties relating to temperament that initially differentiated the two groups. b. had the same chance of developing a personality disorder regardless of which group they were originally in. c. were diagnosed with narcissistic and histrionic personality disorders more often if they were in the uninhibited group. d. lost all of the basic brain properties relating to temperament that initially differentiated the two groups. 27. 28. Good attachment in childhood results in the ability to think about the mental states of others, or , which is important to personality development. a. empathy b. sympathy c. mentalization d. compartmentalization 29.Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet) 1. Mental retardation occurs in approximately of the general population. a.1 b.5 c.10 d.20 2. Treatment of phenylketonuria includes all of the following EXCEPT A) daily supplements. B) a severely restricted low-protei n diet. C) a diet rich in dairy products and grains. D) compliance until age 8. 3. Ingestion and inhalation are the two most common ways that enters the body. a. lead b. iron c. copper d. aluminum 4. Mathematics disorder, or ____, is the diminished disability to understand mathematical terms, operations, or concepts; recognize numerical symbols or arithmetic signs; or copy numberslfigures correctly. a. dysgraphia b. dyscalculia c. dyspraxia d. dyslexia 5. Autistic disorder, Asperger’s disorder, and pervasive developmental disorder not otherwise specified are collectively known as a. autism spectrum disorders. b. childhood integrative disorders. c. developmental delay disorders. d. disruptive behavior disorders. 31. 32. Until the 1970s, autistic disorder was thought to be caused by , or parents who were emotionally unresponsive to their infants. a. frigid parents b. refrigerator mothers c. emotionally repressed parents d. schizophrenogenic mothers7. Although few adults develop bipolar disorder after the age of 65, when it does occur, the intervals between manic and depressive periods are and the episodes are. _ than in younger adults. a. longer; shorter b. shorter; shorter c. longer; longer d. shorter; longer 8. As with depression, treatment for anxiety should always begin with a. a complete medical evaluation. b. medication therapy. c. an in-depth psychosocial evaluation. d. cognitive-behavioral therapy. 9. Treatment for risky/problematic drinking in older adults is aimed at a. prevention and early intervention. b. detoxification and relapse prevention. c. social skills training and daily living activities. d. withdrawal safety and early intervention. 10. Etiological factors for late-onset schizophrenia include all of the following EXCEPT a. hormonal changes in women. b. deficits in hearing and vision. c. hypertension d. genetic factors. 33. 11. In contrast to delirium, the cognitive difficulties associated with dementia a. result in alterations to a patient’s level of consciousness or alertness. b. occur suddenly and disappear in a relatively short amount of time. c. fluctuate over the course of the disorder. d. are not accompanied by changes in consciousness or alertness. 12. Brain abnormalities associated with Alzheimer’s disease include a. excessive amounts of neurofibrillary tangles and cerebral senile plaques. b. smaller cerebral ventricles than can be accounted for by normal aging. c. blocked blood vessels, which may result in tissue death. d. damage that is confined primarily to the inner layers of brain tissue. 13. A shared limitation of the Social Readjustment Rating Scale, the Hassles Scale, and the Uplifts Scale is a. poor “real-I ife” general ization. b. the possibility of memory bias. c. not factoring in individual differences. d. an inability to differentiate between the impact of positive and negative life events. 14. One of the two major systems that are affected by the stress response is the_____________ which results in secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine. a. hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenocortical axis b. parasympathetic nervous system c. sympathetic-adrenomedullary system d. autonomic nervous system 15. A component of the non-specific immune system that prevents microbes from getting into the body is called a(n) barrier. a. anatomical b. protective c. membrane d. microbe 34. 35. According to the text, the different ways that men and women respond to stress may be the result of a. evolutionary influences that dictated different parental roles. b. genetic differences (e.g., the presence/absence of the Y chromosome) and hormonal differences. c. societal influences on gender roles and differences in the physical stress response. d. genetic differences and societal influences on gender roles. 17. Which of these factors is NOT listed in the text as having an influence on the progression of HIV to AIDS and adjustment to an HIV diagnosis? a. genetic factors. b. social support. c. depression. d. stress. 18. Modifying behavior by changing the stimuli that bring on the behavior is called a. contingency contracting. b. stimulus control. c. primary intervention. d. behavior control. 19. In addition to consideration of an appropriate after-discharge treatment plan, successful deinstitutionalization requires a. a resocialization plan developed by the patient’s social worker. b. considerable family therapy to educate members on their responsibilities as part of the team. c. evaluation of a patient’s skills and resources for independent living. d. home healthcare delivery of medications by a visiting nurse practitioner. 20. When a person is judged “not guilty by reason of insanity,” we may infer that a. the person had criminal intent at the time of the crime but is remorseful at the time of trial. b. the person has a long history of untreated mental illness that interfered with rational thought at the time the crime was committed. c. the trial judge cannot show that mental illness was not a factor in the crime. d. the person has a psychological disorder that interferes with understanding the seriousness and illegality of the crime. 36. 37. Which of the following is NOT a term that describes environments that provide the client with protection against unwilling disclosure of personal information? a. Duty to Warn b. Privacy c. Privilege d. Confidentiality 22. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding HIPAA? a. It was originally designed to protect people from losing their health insurance. b. It has great relevance to medicine but little relevance to psychological practice. c. It is a simple and streamlined way of receiving professional reimbursement. d. It is a philosophical/ethical statement with little operational relevance. 23. The practice of psychology is bound by state laws and regulations as well as by a. client demands. b. an eth ical code of behavior. c. medical regulations. d. research and clinical trials. 24. In psychological research, respect for persons means that a. all persons should have equal access to any treatment tested in an experiment. b. participants should be able to choose their experimental condition (active vs. placebo). c. researchers should maximize benefits and minimize harm to subjects. d. people’s autonomy should be respected, and those with limited autonomy should be protected. 25. Which of the following questions has been disallowed on adolescent research protocols in certain school districts because of a concern over suggestibility, thus denying the principle of justice? a. Do your parents support your educational efforts? b. Have you ever thought about suicide? c. Do you think abortion should be legal? d. Have you ever been charged with a crime?
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